{"id":24419,"date":"2013-08-20T08:00:00","date_gmt":"2013-08-20T16:00:00","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/redeeminggod.com\/?p=24419"},"modified":"2019-07-11T06:37:07","modified_gmt":"2019-07-11T13:37:07","slug":"get-paid-to-preach-the-gospel","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/redeeminggod.com\/get-paid-to-preach-the-gospel\/","title":{"rendered":"Should Pastors Get Paid to Preach the Gospel?"},"content":{"rendered":"
In years past I have written about what the Bible says about getting paid to pastor, and especially getting paid to preach the gospel (Look on this page<\/a>, under the “Pastoral Pay” section). Recently, a reader sent in the following question:<\/p>\n I need help responding when someone quotes 1 Corinthians 9:14. Especially when they use the ESV & NKJV.<\/p>\n “In the same way, the Lord commanded that those who proclaim the gospel should get their living by the gospel.”<\/p>\n Specifically, that getting one’s living from the gospel is a “commanded” practice.<\/p>\n I understand that it is also translated “directed,” however, once “commanded” is interjected into the debate, it’s tough to respond.<\/p>\n My thoughts are: If “commanded” is the correct translation, then did Paul blatantly disobey the Lord’s command? And why would Paul say he would rather “die” than to even give the perception that he materially benefited from preaching?<\/p>\n Any thoughts on the issue would be greatly appreciated.<\/p>\n Thanks I must admit that although I have finished a rough draft of a commentary on 1 Corinthians, I have never before considered this question Neil brought up. By one way of reading 1 Corinthians 9:14, Paul does appear to be saying that Jesus commanded that certain people should get paid to preach the gospel.<\/p>\n There are multiple ways of explaining and understanding this text, and I will present a few below, but would love for you opinion as well on what 1 Corinthians 9:14 means when Paul says that the Lord commanded that those who preach their gospel should get their living by the gospel.<\/p>\n When Neil initially sent this question in to me, I responded this way:<\/p>\n First, I did some quick study of the Greek in the text, and decided that the various translations are fine. Though there are some verses in various translations that are horrid, this is not one of them.<\/p>\n So I then decided that maybe the\u00a0command was not primarily for the one preaching the gospel, but for those who were receiving the benefit from the teacher. That is, the command is for the hearers. They were expected to provide for the one doing the teaching. If the one doing the teacher turned down the aid, that was fine, as Paul did. In the context, he says that although it was his right to receive financial help from the Corinthians believers, he turned it down so as not to hinder the gospel (1 Cor 9:12).<\/p>\n This is the answer I sent to Neil, and while I think there is truth to this idea (that the responsibility is on the hearer to offer support rather than on the teacher to demand it), I do not think that this is what Paul is saying. It does not seem that we can get my interpretation to fit the text. Note that the command is clearly to the one preaching the gospel,\u00a0not\u00a0<\/em>to the ones hearing it. Although… the context is directed toward the hearers, so maybe my take is somewhat justified…<\/p>\n So what other options are there?<\/p>\n
\nNeil<\/p><\/blockquote>\nMaybe the Command is not for the Preacher but for the Hearer<\/h2>\n
The Command is for Apostles who Preach the Gospel<\/h2>\n